Problem 301
Easy Remainders and Fourier Series

By expanding the integrand in a power series, calculate

By expanding the integrand in a power series, calculate $\displaystyle\int_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)}x\,dx$, given that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\dfrac1{n^2}=\dfrac{\pi^2}6$.

Explanation of Method

Dividing the $\ln(1-x)$ series by $x$ and integrating term by term over $[0,1]$ produces exactly the Basel-problem series, so the given value settles the integral immediately.

  1. Divide the $\ln(1-x)$ series by $x$.
  2. Integrate term by term over $[0,1]$.
  3. Match to the given Basel-problem sum.

Step 1 · Divide by $x$

$$ \frac{\ln(1-x)}x = -\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^{n-1}}n. $$

Step 2 · Integrate over $[0,1]$

$$ \int_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)}x\,dx = -\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac1n\int_0^1x^{n-1}\,dx = -\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac1{n^2}. $$

Step 3 · Apply the given result

$$ \int_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)}x\,dx = -\frac{\pi^2}6. $$ This is $-\zeta(2)=-\operatorname{Li}_2(1)$, the negative of Euler's famous 1734 solution to the Basel problem.


Summary Table

PropertyValue
Result$-\pi^2/6\approx-1.644934$
Related constant$\zeta(2)=\pi^2/6$
Related special value$-\operatorname{Li}_2(1)$

Additional Notes

Result

$$ \int_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)}x\,dx = -\frac{\pi^2}6. $$