Problem 44
Easy Classical Probability

A lottery has released n+m tickets for sale, of which only n…

A lottery has released $n+m$ tickets for sale, of which only $n$ are winning tickets. If someone bought $k$ tickets, find the probability that among them there will be exactly $s$ winning tickets.

Explanation of Method

The $k$ bought tickets form a random group of $k$ out of $n+m$, and all groups are equally likely. A favourable group consists of $s$ winning tickets (chosen from the $n$ winning ones) and $k-s$ losing tickets (chosen from the $m$ losing ones). Counting with combinations and dividing gives the hypergeometric probability — the same idea as in Problem 37.

Step 1: All outcomes

\[ \text{number of ways to choose } k \text{ tickets out of } n+m = \binom{n+m}{k}. \]

Step 2: Favourable outcomes

By the multiplication rule: $\binom{n}{s}\binom{m}{k-s}$ favourable groups.

Step 3: The probability

\[ \boxed{P = \frac{\dbinom{n}{s}\dbinom{m}{k-s}}{\dbinom{n+m}{k}}, \qquad \max(0,\,k-m)\le s\le\min(k,\,n).} \]

For other values of $s$ there is no favourable group and $P=0$ (you cannot get more winning tickets than exist, or more losing ones than exist).

Step 4: Example

$n+m=20$ tickets, $n=5$ winning, $m=15$ losing; you buy $k=3$. Then $\binom{20}{3}=1140$ and

$s$$\binom5s\binom{15}{3-s}$Probability
$0$$1\cdot455=455$$455/1140\approx0.399$
$1$$5\cdot105=525$$525/1140\approx0.461$
$2$$10\cdot15=150$$150/1140\approx0.132$
$3$$10\cdot1=10$$10/1140\approx0.009$
total$1140$$1$ ✓

So the chance of exactly one winning ticket is about $0.46$, and the chance of at least one is $1-0.399=0.601$.

Step 5: Average number of winning tickets

Each bought ticket wins with probability $\frac{n}{n+m}$, so on average $k\cdot\frac{n}{n+m}$ of the bought tickets win (in the example $3\cdot\frac{5}{20}=0.75$).


Result

Answer
Probability of exactly $s$ winning tickets$P=\dfrac{\binom{n}{s}\binom{m}{k-s}}{\binom{n+m}{k}}$
Possible values$\max(0,k-m)\le s\le\min(k,n)$