Problem 28
Hard Properties of Probability

It is known that P(AB)=P(A)P(B) (i.e. the events A and B are…

It is known that $P(AB)=P(A)P(B)$ (i.e. the events $A$ and $B$ are independent), $C\supset AB$ and $\overline{C}\supset\overline{A}\,\overline{B}$. Prove that $P(AC)>P(A)P(C)$.

Explanation of Method

The conditions tell us exactly where $C$ can be: it contains the piece $AB$, it misses the piece $\overline{A}\,\overline{B}$, and it may contain parts of the two mixed pieces $A\overline{B}$ and $\overline{A}B$. We express $P(AC)$ and $P(C)$ through the probabilities of these parts, use independence to write $P(\overline{A}B)=P(B)(1-P(A))$, and compute the difference $P(AC)-P(A)P(C)$ exactly. It turns out to be a sum of two non-negative terms. So the inequality always holds with "$\ge$". It is strict in typical cases but can be an equality (for example when $C=B$), so the strict version must be stated with care.

Step 1: Translate the conditions

Step 2: Split $\Omega$ into pieces and name the probabilities

Write $a=P(A)$, $b=P(B)$, so $P(AB)=ab$. Split $\Omega$ by $A$ and $B$ and look at how much of each piece lies in $C$:

PiecePart in $C$Part outside $C$Reason
$AB$all of it: probability $ab$$0$$AB\subseteq C$
$A\overline{B}$$x=P(A\overline{B}C)$$P(A\overline{B}\,\overline{C})$no condition
$\overline{A}B$$y=P(\overline{A}BC)$$z=P(\overline{A}B\overline{C})$no condition
$\overline{A}\,\overline{B}$$0$all of it$\overline{A}\,\overline{B}\subseteq\overline{C}$

Independence gives the probability of the piece $\overline{A}B$:

\[ P(\overline{A}B) = P(B) - P(AB) = b - ab = b(1-a), \qquad\text{so}\qquad y + z = b(1-a). \]

Step 3: $P(AC)$ and $P(C)$

$AC$ consists of the parts of $C$ inside $A$: the whole piece $AB$ and the part $A\overline{B}C$. So

\[ P(AC) = ab + x. \]

$C$ consists of $AB$, $A\overline{B}C$ and $\overline{A}BC$ (nothing from $\overline{A}\,\overline{B}$):

\[ P(C) = ab + x + y. \]

Step 4: Compute the difference

\[ \begin{aligned} P(AC) - P(A)P(C) &= ab + x - a(ab + x + y)\\ &= ab(1-a) + x(1-a) - ay. \end{aligned} \]

Now substitute $y = b(1-a) - z$ from Step 2:

\[ \begin{aligned} &= ab(1-a) + x(1-a) - ab(1-a) + az\\ &= (1-a)\,x + a\,z. \end{aligned} \]

So we get the exact formula

\[ \boxed{P(AC) - P(A)P(C) = P(\overline{A})\,P(A\overline{B}C) + P(A)\,P(\overline{A}B\overline{C}) \ \ge 0.} \]

Both terms are products of probabilities, so they are non-negative. Hence

\[ P(AC) \ge P(A)P(C). \]

Step 5: When is the inequality strict?

$P(AC) > P(A)P(C)$ holds exactly when at least one of the two terms is positive:

Equality can happen. Toss two fair coins; $A$ = "first coin heads", $B$ = "second coin heads" (independent), and take $C=B$. Then $AB\subseteq C$ and $\overline{A}\,\overline{B}\subseteq\overline{B}=\overline{C}$, so all conditions hold, but

\[ P(AC) = P(AB) = \tfrac14 = \tfrac12\cdot\tfrac12 = P(A)P(C). \]

Here both terms are zero: $A\overline{B}C=A\overline{B}B=\varnothing$ and $\overline{A}B\overline{C}=\overline{A}B\overline{B}=\varnothing$. So the strict inequality in the statement is true only under the extra condition above; in general the correct statement is $P(AC)\ge P(A)P(C)$.

A strict example. Same coins, $C = A+B$ ("at least one head"). Then $P(AC)=P(A)=\tfrac12$ and $P(A)P(C)=\tfrac12\cdot\tfrac34=\tfrac38$, so $P(AC)>P(A)P(C)$. The formula agrees: $P(\overline{A})P(A\overline{B}C) = \tfrac12\cdot\tfrac14 = \tfrac18 = \tfrac12-\tfrac38$. ✓

Step 6: Meaning

$P(AC)\ge P(A)P(C)$ means $A$ and $C$ are non-negatively correlated: knowing that $A$ occurred does not make $C$ less likely (if $P(A)>0$, it is equivalent to $P(C\mid A)\ge P(C)$). This is natural: $C$ is forced to occur when $A$ and $B$ both occur, and forced to fail when both fail, so $A$ "pushes" $C$ upwards.


Result

Result
Exact difference$P(AC)-P(A)P(C) = P(\overline{A})P(A\overline{B}C) + P(A)P(\overline{A}B\overline{C})$
Always true$P(AC)\ \ge\ P(A)P(C)$
Strict inequalityexactly when $P(\overline{A})P(A\overline{B}C)>0$ or $P(A)P(\overline{A}B\overline{C})>0$
Equality example$C=B$: then $P(AC)=P(A)P(C)$