Calculus · Infinite series
So far our series added up numbers. Now each term is a function of \(x\), and the sum is a new function. Is that sum continuous? Can we differentiate or integrate it term by term? The answer hinges on one concept, uniform convergence. This post explains it and shows how it leads to beautiful results like \( 1 - \frac13 + \frac15 - \cdots = \frac\pi4 \).
A series of functions is a series whose terms depend on a variable:
\[ \sum_{n=1}^\infty u_n(x) = u_1(x) + u_2(x) + u_3(x) + \cdots \tag{1} \]For each fixed number \(x\), this is an ordinary numerical series, which may converge or diverge.
To find the domain, fix \(x\) and use the tests from the earlier posts on numerical series (especially the ratio and root tests applied to \(|u_n(x)|\)), then check the boundary points separately.
Convergence for each \(x\) separately (pointwise convergence) turns out to be too weak. Look at the sequence \( u_n(x) = x^n \) on \([0, 1]\):
\[ \lim_{n\to\infty} x^n = \begin{cases} 0, & 0 \le x < 1,\\ 1, & x = 1. \end{cases} \]Every \(x^n\) is a perfectly continuous function, yet the limit jumps at \(x = 1\). The reason: for \(x\) close to \(1\), \(x^n\) approaches \(0\) very slowly. To get \(x^n < 0.01\) you need \( n > \frac{\ln 100}{-\ln x} \), and this number explodes as \(x \to 1\). No single \(N\) works for all \(x\).
The key word is that \(N\) depends only on \(\varepsilon\), not on \(x\). Geometrically: draw a band of width \(\varepsilon\) above and below the graph of the limit \(u(x)\). Uniform convergence means that from some \(N\) on, the entire graph of \(u_n\) lies inside the band.
A practical reformulation, which is what you'll actually compute:
\[ \text{uniform convergence} \iff \sup_{x\in X}|u(x) - u_n(x)| \longrightarrow 0 \quad (n \to \infty). \]This is the Cauchy criterion for numerical series from the first post, with one addition: the same \(N\) must work for all \(x\). Its advantage is that it doesn't require knowing the sum \(S(x)\) in advance. It is the main tool for proving the tests below.
Why it works: \( \left|\sum_{\nu=n+1}^{n+p} u_\nu(x)\right| \le \sum_{\nu=n+1}^{n+p} c_\nu \), and the right side doesn't depend on \(x\) and is small by the Cauchy criterion for \(\sum c_n\). In practice, take \( c_n = \sup_{x\in X}|u_n(x)| \) and check whether \(\sum c_n\) converges. This is by far the most used test.
Like their numerical versions in the previous post, these handle series that converge only thanks to cancellation, of the form
\[ \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n(x)\,b_n(x). \tag{2} \]Here is why uniform convergence matters. For finite sums, limits, derivatives and integrals can always be taken term by term. For infinite sums this is a swap of two limiting processes, and uniform convergence is what makes the swap legal.
Read backwards, it's a quick test for non-uniform convergence: if continuous terms add up to a discontinuous sum, the convergence cannot be uniform (Example 2 on \([0,1]\), Example 4 near \(0\)).
This is especially useful at an endpoint \(a\) of the interval, where the series may not even be defined, as we'll see in Section 6.
The last condition says the integral of the remainder must tend to zero. On a finite segment, uniform convergence guarantees this automatically: \( \left|\int_a^b R_n\,dx\right| \le (b - a)\sup|R_n| \to 0 \). On an infinite interval, the factor \(b - a\) is infinite, so the condition has to be checked directly.
Put all the tools together. These two classic results were quoted in earlier posts; now we can prove them.
Step 1 (integrate a geometric series). For \(|t| < 1\), \( \frac{1}{1 + t} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^nt^n \). For \(0 \le x < 1\), this series converges uniformly on \([0, x]\) (majorant \(x^n\)), so by Property 4:
\[ \ln(1 + x) = \int_0^x \frac{dt}{1 + t} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n\frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1} = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n-1}x^n}{n}. \]Step 2 (uniform convergence up to \(x = 1\)). Apply Abel's test on \([0, 1]\) with \( a_n = \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n} \) (constant in \(x\), and \(\sum a_n\) converges by Leibniz, hence uniformly) and \( b_n(x) = x^n \) (monotone in \(n\), bounded by \(1\)). So the series converges uniformly on \([0, 1]\).
Step 3 (pass to the limit). By Property 2 (or Property 1, continuity), let \(x \to 1^-\):
\[ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n} = \lim_{x\to1^-}\ln(1 + x) = \ln 2. \]The same three steps with \( \frac{1}{1 + t^2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^nt^{2n} \):
\[ \operatorname{arctg}x = \int_0^x\frac{dt}{1 + t^2} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}}{2n + 1} \qquad (0 \le x < 1). \]Abel's test (with \(b_n = x^{2n+1}\)) gives uniform convergence on \([0, 1]\), and letting \(x \to 1^-\):
\[ 1 - \frac13 + \frac15 - \frac17 + \cdots = \operatorname{arctg}1 = \frac\pi4. \]| Concept / property | Statement | Key condition |
|---|---|---|
| Domain of convergence | set \(X\) where \(\sum u_n(x)\) converges | test each \(x\), check endpoints |
| Uniform convergence | \( \sup_X|S(x) - S_n(x)| \to 0 \) | \(N\) depends only on \(\varepsilon\) |
| Weierstrass | \( |u_n(x)| \le c_n,\ \sum c_n < \infty \) | absolute + uniform |
| Abel | \(\sum a_n\) uniform, \(b_n\) monotone, uniformly bounded | uniform |
| Dirichlet | partial sums of \(\sum a_n\) uniformly bounded, \(b_n \searrow 0\) uniformly | uniform |
| Continuity | sum of continuous terms is continuous | uniform convergence |
| Limit term by term | \( \lim\sum = \sum\lim \) | uniform convergence |
| Differentiation | \( (\sum u_n)' = \sum u_n' \) | \(\sum u_n'\) uniform |
| Integration | \( \int\sum = \sum\int \) | uniform on \([a, b]\); remainder integral \(\to 0\) for infinite limits |
Try each one before opening the solution. More solved problems from this topic are in Series.
For \(|x| \le 1\), the terms are at least \(\frac12\), so they don't tend to zero: divergence. For \(|x| > 1\), \( \frac{1}{1 + x^{2n}} < \big(\frac{1}{x^2}\big)^n \), a convergent geometric series. Domain: \( |x| > 1 \).
Yes, by Weierstrass: \( \left|\frac{\cos nx}{n^3 + 1}\right| \le \frac{1}{n^3} \).
Its sum is \( (1 - x)\frac{x}{1 - x} = x \) for \(0 \le x < 1\), and \(0\) at \(x = 1\). The terms are continuous but the sum is discontinuous at \(1\), so by Property 1 the convergence is not uniform.
Integrating \( \frac{1}{1 - t} = \sum t^n \) from \(0\) to \(x\) (\(|x| < 1\)) gives \( -\ln(1 - x) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{x^n}{n} \). At \(x = \frac12\): \( \sum\frac{1}{n2^n} = -\ln\frac12 = \ln 2 \).
Multiply Example 5 by \(x\): \( \sum nx^n = \frac{x}{(1-x)^2} \). At \(x = \frac13\): \( \frac{1/3}{4/9} = \frac34 \).
The series converges uniformly (Weierstrass, \(\frac1{n^3}\)), so integrate term by term: \( \int_0^\pi \sin nx\,dx = \frac{1 - \cos n\pi}{n} \), which is \(\frac2n\) for odd \(n\) and \(0\) for even \(n\). The result is \( \sum_{n\ \text{odd}}\frac{2}{n^4} = 2\cdot\frac{\pi^4}{96} = \frac{\pi^4}{48} \) (using the known value \( \sum_{n\ \text{odd}}\frac1{n^4} = \frac{\pi^4}{96} \)).
On \((0, 2\pi)\) its sum is \( \frac{\pi - x}{2} \), which tends to \(\frac\pi2\) as \(x \to 0^+\). If the convergence were uniform, Property 2 would give \( \lim_{x\to0^+}\sum\frac{\sin nx}{n} = \sum\lim_{x\to0^+}\frac{\sin nx}{n} = 0 \), a contradiction.
Uniform convergence is the passport that lets limits, derivatives and integrals travel through an infinite sum. The intuition to keep: the error must become small at the same rate everywhere on the set. Check it with Weierstrass's test whenever you can; fall back on Abel and Dirichlet for oscillating terms; and remember that for differentiation it is the derived series that must converge uniformly.
Next in the series: power series and Taylor series.